So, doctors are on a 49020-59 roll and want it on all colectomy procedures that mention peritonitis, such as 44143 (Hartman’s). I specifically asked someone at a seminar this scenario and was told no:

If the doctor opens a patient and finds an abscess on one portion of intestine (say transverse), drains it, and then performs a Hartman’s (not involving the transverse), can we bill a 49020-59 with it?

If the doctor opens a patient and finds pus and fecal matter in the abdomen due to perforation, drains it, and then performs a Hartman’s, can we bill 49020-59?

I know my opinion/thoughts on it but don’t want to sway anyone with them.